councelling session

[raghuveerbainsla]

hi to all

if anybody want to take addmission in any streem in u.g. programme or in p.g. programme u can cunsult me any time on my e-mail"[e-mail]"
or call me 09873390733 res no 01275-267223


thanks


Raghuveer singh bainsla

[kpsgurjar]

Now the exams of XII class are over and children preparing for various competitions. Are we having resource persons who can guide/councel them for better future.

[raghuveerbainsla]

dear sir

I m a employees of DAV Institute of management faridabad. I m cordinator of MBA evening programm.and also a counceller

u can send u r query
my e-mail is "[e-mail]"
my contact no is 09873390733 res. no 01275-267223

thanks

Raghuveer singh

[ravindertanwar]

Hi,
Every One

I am an IT Professional with Sapient Corporation Ltd Gurgaon.
and can take a chance to guide my younger brothers to solve their queries about IT field and can try to solve other UG or PG related queries too.

Regards.
Ravinder Partap Singh Tanwar

[ravindertanwar]

:

My Email Id is

[e-mail]

Phone no. is 09899913801

Regard

Ravinder Partap Singh Tanwar

[raghuveerbainsla]

dear Ravinder

sorry for my late reaply be cos i was so busy in my examination
but now i call u as soon as

thanks

Raghuveer singh

[Dr rambilas singh Gurjar]

Hello
Everybody
***
I am an Medical postgraduate anyOne who is interested in medical eduction and advise,
please call me on my mobile no 09314180633
or ask me on my Email [e-mail],[e-mail]
or on gurjarsonline.I am general surgeon in rajasthan government since 12 years
I will be very happy if my younger brothers get my guidencce to solve their queries, about medical field ,and will try to solve their professional clinical or medical related queries .

Regards.yours Dr rambilassingh

[Dr rambilas singh Gurjar]

Examination for the Civil Services conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the peoples who are interested in becoming an IAS officer

For determined person, it is not so tough, now opportunity for average student who had secured at least 1st division in graduation has increased. Because most of creamy layer intelligent students get separated after senior higher secondary examination, for the Medical and Engineering examination .and fewer students who are predetermined and confident has better economic support and guidance from family not in hurry to get the employment, wait for civil services until completion of graduate degree. once there was a trend when most of IITians Engineers were also aspirant to Civil services now due to boom in IT, Computer technology and entrance of multinational companies the had left this choice and now comparatively less students are appearing in civil service examination.

Becoming an IAS officer is a very good career option If you become an IAS officer, you become part of the Indian Administrative Service. You will be part of the Govt. You can work from “the inside” and change “the system”. , IAS is for you, if you determine to become an IAS officer, there is a lot more power and control you have so that you can be part of Emerging India! Besides that, IAS is a great career option! You get many “perks of the job” when you are an IAS officer. You will have “job security”, “discount on Govt. services”, “Govt. provided transportation” and many more things... Even though the monthly salary provided by the IAS career is not too high, the “perks” make up for the less salary

Basically getting into the IAS is not that easy, there is a very competitive “one year long” exam! To get into the IAS, you probably will have to try more than once before you succeed. And even if you clear the exam, then you have to get a very good score to qualify for the IAS,


Here I am giving you the web sites which may be helpful to you for your orientation

, 1.http://www.civilserviceindia.com

2.http://www.kadiravan.com

3.http://www.sriramsias.com

4http://www.iasgurukul.org

5.http://www.sriramsias.com/sriramsiastea … dvice.html.

6.http://nvkishore.blogspot.com/search/la … 20services
6. indiahowto.com
7Civil Service Examinations

IAS CIVIL EXAMINATION Exam Details:
All India Combined Competitive Examination for the Civil Services conducted by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) comprises of two successive stages:
1. Preliminary Examination: It is of objective type, which is a qualifying examination for the selection of candidates for Main Examination (Remarks : More details on the UPSC web site.)



2. Main Examination: It consists of written examination and interview for the selection of candidates for the various services and posts.
The Preliminary Examination is held in May/June and the Main Examination in October/November.
One must begin preparations of the main exam along with preliminary exam. This is because there is little time for the Main exam if one waits for the results of the Preliminaries.
. How many times are you allowed to give the exam?
*If you belong to the “Open Category” you can give the exam 4 times maximum!
*If you belong to the “OBC” you can give the exam 7 times.
*If you belong to the “SC/ST” you can give the exam as many times as you want. There is no restriction on the number of times!

What is eligibility, and age limit?
Minimum academic qualifications prescribed
A Graduate (BA, BCom, BSc or Higher) degree from a recognized university or equivalent
Age Limits
21-30 years as on 1.8.2008 for next session, (i.e. the session on which year you are appearing)
Remarks
Only such of the candidates as are declared qualified on the results of Preliminary Examination are eligible to take the Main Examination

If a person appears in the Preliminary Exam or even appears in one paper, it is counted as an attempt.
Scheme of CS (Preliminary) Examination
The Preliminary Examination consists of two papers of objective type (multiple-choice questions) carrying a maximum of 450 marks.
The Question Papers (Test Booklets) are set in English & Hindi,

Paper - I General Studies 150 Marks
Paper - II One of the optional subjects to be selected from the prescribed optional subjects 300 Marks
List of Optional Subjects CS (Preliminary) - Total 23
Agriculture Mathematics
Animal Husbandry & Vet nary Science Mechanical Engineering
Botany Medical Science
Chemistry Philosophy
Civil Engineering Physics
Commerce Political Science
Economics Psychology
Electrical Engineering Public Administration
Geography Sociology
Geology Statistics
Indian History Zoology
Law




Where is the exam conducted?
The following cities have exam centers:
1.Agartala2.Gangtok3.Panaji(Goa)5.Ahmedabad6.Hyderabad7.Patna8.Aizawl9.Imphal10.Pondicherry11.Aligarh12.Itanagar13.PortBlair14.Allahabad16.Jaipur17.Raipur18.Aurangabad19.Jammu20.Ranchi21.Bangalore22.Jodhpur23.Sambalpur24.Bareilly25.Jorhat26.Shillong27.Bhopal28.Kochi29.Shimla30.Chandigarh31.Kohima32.Srinagar33.Chennai34.Kolkata35Thiruvananthapuram36.Cuttack37.Lucknow38.Tirupati39.Dehradun40.Madurai41.Udaipur42.Delhi43.Mumbai44.Vishakhapatnam45.Dharwar46Nagpur47.Dispur
What is the Course of Preliminary Examination?
It will consist of two papers of Objective type (multiple choice questions) and carry a maximum of 450. The question papers are set in Hindi as well as in English. Preliminary Examination is meant to serve as a screening test only;
The marks obtained by the candidates who are declared qualified for admission to the Main Examination will not be counted for determining their final order of merit.

Paper I is of general studies
The nature and standard of questions in these papers will be such that a well-educated person will be able to answer them without any specialized study. The questions will be such as to test a candidate’s general awareness of a variety of subjects, which will have relevance for a career in Civil Services; I am giving you the model of previous years solved paper below

And paper II is from a selected list of optional subjects for preliminary examinations.
The course content for the optional subjects will be of the degree level. Each paper is of two hours duration. Blind candidates are allowed an extra time of 20 minutes for each paper.
Only those candidates who are declared by the Commission to have qualified in the Preliminary Examination in a year will be eligible for admission to the Main Examination of that year provided they are otherwise eligible for admission to the Main Examination.
Subjects for Paper II (one subject to be selected): Agriculture, Animal Husbandry and Veterinary Science, Botany, Chemistry, Civil Engineering, Commerce, Economics, Electrical Engineering, Geography, Geology, Indian History, Law, Mathematics, Mechanical Engineering, Medical Science, Philosophy, Physics, Political Science, Psychology, Public Administration, Sociology, Statistics, Zoology.




SOLVED TEST PAPER OF GENERAL STUDY PRE CIVIL SERVICES EXAMINATION, for more information about examination please log on to
given site>
Civil Service Examinations
Information on the examinations and tips for taking them.
www.geocities.com/indiancivilservices/ -





Dear brothers there is nothing impossible for determined person
Start your direction towards civil services and win the race
Thank you
Keep it up
Yours truly,
Dr Rambilas Singh Gurjar

[Dr rambilas singh Gurjar]

General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination (2004) model paper

1. Match List-I (Institute) with List - II (located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List - I
(Institute)
A. Indian Institute of Geomagnetism
B. International Advanced Research Centre for Powder Metallurgy and
New Materials
C. Salim Ali Centre for Ornithology and Natural History
D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute

List - II
(Located At)
1. Coimbatore
2. Mumbai
3. Jabalpur
4. Hyderabad
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 3 1 4
(b) A B C D
1 4 2 3
(c) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(d) A B C D
1 3 2 4
2. Consider the following statements:
1. Indira Gandhi Centre for Atomic Research uses fast reactor technology.
2. Atomic Minerals Directorate for Research and Exploration is engaged in heavy water production.
3. Indian Rare Earths Limited is engaged in the manufacture of Zircon for India’s
Nuclear Programme beside other rare earth products.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 3

3. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Reinhold Messner :Computer Technology
(b) Harlow Shapley :Astronomy
(c) Gregor Mendel :Hereditary Theory
(d) Godfrey Hounsfield :CT Scan
4. Consider the following international languages:
1. Arabic
2. French
3. Spanish
The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is
(a) 3-1-2 (b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 1-2-3
5. Who among the following was never the Lok Sabha Speaker?
(a) K.V.K. Sundaram
(b) G.S. Dhillon
(c) Baliram Bhagat
(d) Hukum Singh
6. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 a.m. Both the cars
run at an average speed of 60 km/hr. Car X stops at 10 a.m. and again starts at 11 a.m. while the other car
Y continues to run without stopping. When do the two cars cross each other?
(a) 2 : 40 p.m. (b) 3 : 20 p.m.
(c) 4 : 10 p.m (d) 4 : 20 p.m.
7. In a question of a test paper, there are five items each under List-A and List-B. The examinees are required to
match each item under List-A with its corresponding correct item under List-B. Further, it is given that
(i) no examinee has given the correct answer
(ii) answers of no two examinees are identical
What is the maximum number of examinees who took this test?
(a) 24 (b) 26
(c) 119 (d) 129
The details given below relate to the four items that follow:
Amit wishes to buy a magazine. Four magazines–one each on politics, sports, science and films are
available to choose from. They are edited by Feroz, Gurbaksh, Swami and Ila (not necessarily in that order)
and published by Aryan, Bharat, Charan and Dev Publishers (not necessarily in that order). Further, it is given that
(i) Dev Publishers have published the magazine edited by Feroz
(ii) the magazine on politics is published by Aryan Publishers
(iii) the magazine on films is edited by Swami and is not published by Charan Publishers
(iv) the magazine on science is edited by Ila
For the following four items, select the correct answer:
8. The magazine on science is published by
(a) Aryan Publisher
(b) Bharat Publishers
(c) Charan Publishers (d) Dev Publishers
9. The magazine on sports is
(a) edited by Feroz
(b) edited by Gurbaksh
(c) published by Bharat Publishers
(d) published by Charan Publishers
10. The magazine on films is
(a) published by Dev Publishers
(b) published by Bharat Publishers
(c) edited by Gurbaksh
(d) published by Charan Publishers
11. The magazine on politics is
(a) edited by Ila
(b) edited by Gurbaksh
c) published by Dev Publishers
(d) published by Charan Publishers

12. Match List-I (Distinguished Ladies) with List-II (Area of Work) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Distinguished Ladies)
A. Jhumpa Lahiri
B. Sunita Narain
C. Naina Lal Kidwai
D. Ravina Raj Kohli
List-II
(Area of Work)
1. Science and environment
2. Novel-writing
3. Film industry
4. Banking
5. Television media
Codes:
(a) A B C D
4 5 3 1
(b) A B C D
2 1 4 5
(c) A B C D
4 1 3 5
(d) A B C D
2 5 4 1
13. Which one of the following does not border Panama?
(a) Costa Rica
(b) Pacific Ocean
(c) Colombia
(d) Venezuela
14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a rectangular field
400 m × 300 m. And B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr respectively. How many times shall they
cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?
(a) Not even once
(b) Once
(c) Twice
(d) Thrice
15. Match List-I (Beaches in India) which List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists:
List-I
(Beaches in India)
A. Gopnath Beach
B. Lawsons Bay Beach
C. Devbagh Beach
D. Sinquerim Beach
List-II
(States)
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Gujarat
4. Goa
5. Karnataka
Codes:
(a) A B C D
5 4 2 1
(b) A B C D
3 1 5 4
(c) A B C D
5 1 2 4
(d) A B C D
3 4 5 1
16. A car is running on a road at uniform speed of 60 km/hr. The net resultant
force on the car is
(a) driving force in the direction of car’s motion
(b) resistance force in the direction of car’s motion
(c) an inclined force
(d) equal to zero
17. Match List-I (Biosphere Reserves) with List-II (States) and select the
correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Biosphere Reserves) (States)
A. Similipal 1. Sikkim
B. Dehong Deband 2. Uttaranchal
C. Nokrek 3. ArunachalPradesh
D. Kanchenjunga 4. Orissa
5. Meghalya
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 3 5 4
(b) A B C D
4 5 2 1
(c) A B C D
1 5 2 4
(d) A B C D
4 3 5 1
18. Amongst the following Indian States which one has the minimum total forest
cover?
(a) Sikkim (b) Goa
(c) Haryana (d) Kerala
19. How many three-digit even numbers are there such that 9 comes as a succeeding
digit in any number only when 7 is the preceding digit and 7 is the preceding
digit only when 9 is the succeeding digit?
(a) 120 (b) 210
(c) 365 (d) 405
20. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Sports-person) (Sports/Game)
A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton
B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming
C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn
Tennis
D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker
5. Hockey
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 5 4 2
(b) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
2 5 4 3
21. The record for the highest score in an innings in Test Cricket is now being held by M. Hayden.
Immediately prior to him, the three record holders were
(a) Don Bradman, Sunil Gavaskar and Colin Cowdrey
(b) Len Huton, Peter May and Vivian Richards
(c) Hanif Mohammed, Garfield Sobers and Brian Lara
(d) Bob Cowper, Bill Lawry and Brian Lara
22. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them, Ajit and Mukherjee,
are never together?
(a) 120 (b) 240
(c) 360 (d) 480
23. Match List-I (State/Province/Overseas Territory) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(State/Province/Overseas (Country)
Territory)
A. British Colombia 1. USA
B. Bavaria 2. UK
C. Gibraltar 3. Canada
D. Rhode Island 4.Germany
5. Denmark
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 2 5 3
(b) A B C D
3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
1 4 2 3
(d) A B C D
3 2 5 1


24. Consider the following statements:
1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.
2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.
3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
25. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work,
but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is
completed in
(a) 45 days (b) 50 days
(c) 54 days (d) 62 days
26. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Unit of Indian Railway Location
(a) Railway Staff : Vadodra
College
(b) Central : Varanasi
Organization
for Railway
Electrification
(c) Wheel and Axle Plant : Bangalore
(d) Rail-coach : Kapurthala
Factory
27. Consider the following statements:
1. Smart Card is a plastic card with an embedded microchip.
2. Digital technology is primarily used with new physical communication medium such as satellite
and fibre optics transmission.
3. A digitial library is a collection of documents in an organized electronic form available on the
Internet only.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
28. Match List-I (New Names of the Countries) with List-II (Old Names
of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(New Names of (Old Names of the
the Countries) Countries)
A. Benin 1. Nyasaland
B. Belize 2. Basutoland
C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland
D. Malawi 4. British Honduras
5. Dahomey
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 1 2 4
(b) A B C D
5 4 3 1
(c) A B C D
3 4 2 1
(d) A B C D
5 1 3 4
29. Which one of the following is the correct in the descending order of precedence in the warrant of precedence?
(a) Attorney General of India-Judges of the Suprem Court-Members of Parliament - Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) Judges of the Supreme Court-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Attorney General of India-Members of Parliament
(c) Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Judges of the Supreme Court-Members of Parliament
(d) Judges of the Supreme Court-Attorney General of India-Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha-Members of Parliament
30. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students
will have identical date and month of their birth is
(a) 3/1000
(b) 3/365
(c) 1/(365)2
(d) 1/(365)3
31. Consider the following statements:
1. Montenegro and Serbia agreed to a new structure for the Yugoslav Federation.
2. Croatia remained under the Hungarian Administration until the end of First World War.
3. Claims to Macedonia Territory have long been a source of contention between Belgium and Greece.
4. In 1991, Slovenia declared independence from Czechoslovakia.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
32. Shirin Ebadi, who won the Nobel Peace Price in 2003, is from
(a) Iraq (b) Nigeria
(c) Iran (d) Libya
33. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and
the floor of a room, while continuing to remain in a vertical plane. The path traced by a person standing at the middle point of the slipping ladder is
(a) a straight line
(b) an elliptical path
(c) a circular path
(d) a parabolic path
34. The research work of Paul Lauterbur and Peter Mansfield, the Nobel Prize winners for Medicine in 2003, relates to
(a) the control of AIDS
(b) magnetic resonance imaging
(c) respiratory diseases
(d) genetic engineering
35. In 2003, Alison Richard took over as the first ever woman Vice-Chancellor of
(a) Oxford University
(b) Cambridge University
(c) Harvard University
(d) Purdue University
36. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?
(a) 27 (b) 39
(c) 93 (d) 39 - 3
37. Goerge W. Bush, the President of America, comes from which of the following American States?
(a) California (b) Texas
(c) Virginia (d) Indiana
38. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?
Department Ministry of the Government of India
1. Department of : Ministry of
Women and Child Health and
Development Family Welfare
2. Department of : Ministry of
Official Language Human
Resource Development
3. Department of : Ministry of Drinking Water Water
Supply Resources
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1 (b) 2
(c) 3 (d) None
39. Match List-I (Agency) with List-II (Headquarters) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Agency) (Headquarters)
A.United Nations 1. Nairobi
Development
Programme (UNDP)
B. United Nations 2. Vienna
Environment Programme
(UNEP)
C. United Nations Industrial 3. Berne
Development Organization
(UNIDO)
D. Universal Postal Union 4. New
(UPU) York
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(b) A B C D
4 1 2 3
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
4 3 2 1
40. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prizes twice?
(a) Margaret Atwood
(b) J.M. Coetzee
(c) Grahm Swift
(d) Ian McEwan
41. In the well-known Lawn Tennis doubles team, Max Mirnyi–the partner of Mahesh Bhupati, comes
from which of the following countries?
(a) Italy (b) Sweden
(c) Belarus (d) Croatia

42. Which of the following cricketers holds the record for the highest score in a Cricket Test Match innings by an Indian?
(a) Sunil Gavaskar
(b) Vinoo Mankad
(c) Sachin Tendulkar
(d) V.V.S. Laxman
43. INS Trishul acquired by the Indian Navy in 2003 has been built by
(a) Israel (b) USA
(c) Russia (d) France
44. INSAT-3E, India’s communication satellite, was launched in 2003 from
(a) French Guiana (b) Seychelles
(c) Mauritius (d) Mauritania
45. Match List-I (Person) with List-II (Position) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Person)
A. Anil Kakodar
B. Raman Puri
C. M. Jagannatha Rao
D. G. Madhavan Nair
List-II
(Position)
1. Chief of the Integrated Defence Staff
2. Chairman, 17th Law Commission
3. Chairman, ISRO
4. Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 1 2 4
(b) A B C D
4 2 1 3
(c) A B C D
3 2 1 4
(d) A B C D
4 1 2 3
46. Consider the following statements about Sikh Gurus:
1. Banda Bahadur was appointed as the military leader of the Sikhs by Guru Tegh Bahadur.
2. Guru Arjan Dev became the Sikh Guru after Guru Ram Das.
3. Guru Arjan Dev gave to Sikhs their own script–Gurumukhi.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 2
47. Consider the following Viceroys of Indian during the British rule:
1. Lord Curzon
2. Lord Chelmsford
3. Lord Hardinge
4. Lord Irwin
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure?
(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4
48. Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle:
1. Chauri-Chaura Outrage
2. Minto-Morley Reforms
3. Dandi March
4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms
Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?
(a) 1-3-2-4 (b) 2-4-1-3
(c) 1-4-2-3 (d) 2-3-1-4
49. Consider the following events:
1. Fourth general elections in India
2. Formation of Haryana State
3. Mysore named as Karnataka State
4. Meghalaya and Tripura become full States
Which one of the following is correct chronological order of the above?
(a) 2-1-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1
(c) 2-3-4-1 (d) 4-1-2-3
50. Match List-I (Fuel Gases) with List-II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Fuel Gases)(Major Constituents)
A. CNG 1. Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen
B. Coal gas 2. Butane, Propane
C. LPG 3. Methane, Ethane
D. Water gas 4. Hydrogen, Methane, Carbon monoxide
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 1 3 4
(b) A B C D
3 4 2 1
(c) A B C D
2 4 3 1
(d) A B C D
3 1 2 4
51. A spherical body moves with a uniform angular velocity w around a circular path of radius r.
Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The body has no acceleration
(b) The body has a radial acceleration directed directed towards the centre of the path
(c) The body has a radial acceleration directed away from the centre of the path
(d) The body has an acceleration tangential to its path
52. Which one of the following statements is correct?
‘Deccan Odyssey’ is
(a) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji
(b) a warship recently acquired by Indian Navy
(c) a recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo
(d) a luxury train which travels through Maharashtra and includes Goa in its journey
53. Standard 18-carat gold sold in the market contains
(a) 82 parts gold and 18 parts other metals
(b) 18 parts gold and 82 parts other metals
(c) 18 parts gold and 6 parts other metals
(d) 9 parts gold and 15 parts other metals
54. A weightless rubber balloon is filled with 200 cc of water. Its weight in water is equal to
(a) (b)
(c) (d) Zero
55. Salts of which of the following elements provide colours to fireworks?
(a) Zinc and sulphur
(b) Potassium and mercury
(c) Strontium and barium
(d) Chromium and nickel
56. Consider the following statements:
1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January, 1950.
2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the
Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
57. Which one of the following is the correct decreasing sequence in terms of the value (in rupees)
of the minerals produced in India in the year 2002-03?
(a) Metallic minerals-Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals
(b) Fuel minerals-Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals
(c) Metallic minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Fuel minerals
(d) Fuel minerals-Non-metallic minerals-Metallic minerals
58. Which one of the following cities (they were in the news in recent times) is not correctly matched
with its country?
(a) Salamanca : Spain
(b) Cannes : Italy
(c) Cancun : Mexico
(d) Bruges : Belgium
59. Consider the following statements:
As per 2001 Census
1. the two States with the lowest sex ratio are Haryana and Punjab
2. the two States with the lowest population per sq km of area are Meghalaya and Mizoram
3. Kerala has both the highest literacy rate and sex ratio
Which of the statements given agove is / are correct?
(a) 3 only (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
60. Consider the following statements:
1. In the Third Battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodhi
2. Tipu Sultan was killed in the Third Anglo-Mysore War.
3. Mir Jafar entered in a conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plassey.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) None
61. Which of the following is not a recommendation of the task force on direct taxes under the chairmanship of Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar in the year 2002?
(a) Abolition of Wealth Tax
(b) Increase in the exemption limit of personal income to Rs.1.20 lakh for widows
(c) Elimination of standard deduction
(d) Exemption from tax on dividends and capital gains from the listed equity
62. Match List-I (Books) with List-II (Authors) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Books)
A. My Presidential year
B. The Hindu View of Life
C. Voice of Conscience
D. Without Fear or Favour
List-II
(Authors)
1. S. Radhakrishnan
2. V. V. Giri
3. N. Sanjiva Reddy
4. R. Venkataraman
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(b) A B C D
4 3 2 1
(c) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(d) A B C D
4 1 2 3
63. Consider the following statements:
1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.
2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. What was the reason for 5 lakh people of Hong Kong to make a demonstration around the middle of 2003?
(a) They were demanding tax relief
(b) They were against the Hong Kong Government’s plan to impose an internal security law
(c) They were the members of Falun Gong group who were demanding religious freedom
(d) They were demanding more direct elections in Hong Kong
65. Consider the following statements:
1. National Thermal Power Corporation has diversified into hydropower sector.
2. Power Grid Corporation of India has diversified into telecom sector.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. The Ramon Magsaysay Award winner Shanta Sinha is known as
(a) a campaigner for urban sanitation
(b) an anti-child labour activist
(c) an organizer of rain-water harvesting schemes
(d) an activist for the welfare of poor rural women
67. Consider the following statements:
1. Damodar Valley Corporation is the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India
2. Damodar Valley Corporation includes thermal and gas power stations.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
68. Match List-I (Persons) with List-II (Positions) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I
(Persons)
A. B.P. Mishra
B. Suresh Kalmadi
C. Praful Patel
D. V.S. Jain
List-II
(Positions)
1. Executive Director, IMF
2. Chairman, Steel Authority of India Ltd.
3. President, Indian Olympic Association
4. Vice-President, South Asian Region, World Bank
Codes:
(a) A B C D
4 2 1 3
(b) A B C D
1 3 4 2
(c) A B C D
4 3 1 2
(d) A B C D
1 2 4 3
69. Who among the following is well known as an exponent of flute?
(a) Debu Choudhuri
(b) Madhup Mudgal
(c) Ronu Mazumdar
(d) Shafaat Ahmad
70. Consider the following statements:
Among the Indian States
1. Andhra Pradesh has the longest coastline
2. Gujarat has the highest number of airports
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
71. Tarun Bharat Sangh, an organization based in a village near Alwar (Rajasthan), has become famous because of
(a) cultivation of genetically modified cotton
(b) rehabilitation of women victims of AIDS
(c) livelihood projects for destitute rural women
(d) rain-water harvesting
72. Consider the following statements:
1. The National Housing Bank, the apex institution of housing finance in India, was set up as a wholly-owned subsidiary of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The Small Industries Development Bank of India was established as a wholly owned subsidiary of the Industrial Development Bank of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
73. Param Padma, which was in news recently, is
(a) a new Civilian Award instituted by the Government of India
(b) the name of supercomputer developed by India
(c) the name given to a proposed network of canals linking northern and southern rivers of India
(d) a software programme to facilitate e-governance in Madhya Pradesh
74. Consider the following statements
1. The loans disbursed to farmers under Kisan Credit Card Scheme are covered under Rashtriya Krishi Beema Yojna of Life Insurance Corporation of India.
2. The Kisan Credit Card holders are provided personal accident insurance of Rs.
50,000 for accidental death and Rs.25,000 for permanent disability.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
75. Consider the following statements:
1. Regarding the procurement of food grains, Government of India follows a procurement target rather than an open-ended procurement policy.
2. Government of India announces minimum support prices only for cereals.
3. For distribution under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), wheat and rice are issued by the Government of India at uniform central issue prices to the States/Union Territories.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only

Answers
1. c 2. a 3. a
4. a 5. a 6. b
7. c 8. c 9. a
10. b 11. b 12. b
13. d 14. b 15. b
16. d 17. d 18. c
19. c 20. d 21. c
22. d 23. b 24. a
25. b 26. b 27. d
28. b 29. b 30. c
31. b 32. c 33. c
34. b 35. b 36. c
37. b 38. d 39. b
40. b 41. c 42. d
43. c 44. a 45. d
46. d 47. a 48. b
49. a 50. b 51. b
52. d 53. c 54. d
55. c 56. d 57. b
58. b 59. d 60. b
61. b 62. d 63. c
64. b 65. a 66. b
67. c 68. b 69. c
70. b 71. d 72. c
73. b 74. b 75. d
Remaining (75) Questions in next post(reply no 9)

[Dr rambilas singh Gurjar]

General Studies CSE Preliminary Examination (2004) model paper

Remaining questions

76. Consider the following statements:
India continues to be dependent on imports to meet the requirement of oilseeds in the country because
1. farmers prefer to grow food grains with highly remunerative support prices
2. most of the cultivation of oilseed crops continues to be dependent on rainfall
3. oils from the seeds of tree origin and rice bran have remained unexploited
4. It is far cheper to import oilseeds than to cultivate the oilseed crops
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
77. World’s longest ruling head of government is from
(a) Switzerland
(b) Cuba
(c) Zimbabwe
(d) New Zealand
78. Liberia was in the international news in the recent times for
(a) harbouring terrorists
associated with religious fundamentalism
(b) supplying raw uranium to North Korea
(c) its long-running civil war killing or displacing thousands of people
(d) cultivation of drug-yielding crops and smuggling of drugs
79. Consider the following statements:
1. P.V. Narasimha Rao’s government established diplomatic relations between India and Israel
2. Ariel Sharon is the second Prime Minister of Israel to have visited India
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
80. The reason for Chechnya to be in the news recently is
(a) discovery of huge reserves of oil
(b) separatist rebellious activities by the local people
(c) continuous conflict between the government troops and the narcotic mafia resulting in the great loss of human life
(d) intense cold wave killing hundreds of people
81. The Prime Minister of which one of the following countries was assassinated in the year 2003?
(a) Czech Republic
(b) Romania
(c) Serbia
(d) Slovenia
82. Conisder the following companies:
1. Voltas
2. Titan Industires
3. Rallis India
4. Indian Hotels
Which of the above companies are in the Tata Group of industries?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
83. In which of the following countries, did an ethnic violence between the communities of Hema and Lendu result in the death of hundreds of people?
(a) Democratic Republic of Congo
(b) Indonesia
(c) Nigeria
(d) Zambia

84. More than 40 Heads of States / Governments were invited by Vladimir Putin in May, 2003 to
(a) discuss the issues related to the rehabilitation of Iraq
(b) celebrate the tricentenary of the city of St Petersburg
(c) convene a meeting of European and CIS countries to discuss the issues of missile shield for European and CIS countries
(d) develop the strategies for containing global terrorism
85. Consider the following geological phenomea:
1. Development of a fault
2. Movement along a fault
3. Impact produced by volcanic eruption
4. Folding of rocks
Which of the above cause earthquakes?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
86. Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or
mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?
(a) Article 24 (b) Article 45
(c) Article 330 (d) Article 368
87. According to the National Human Rights Commission Act, 1993, who amongs the following can be its Chairman?
(a) Any serving Judge of the Supreme Court
(b) Any serving Judge of the High Court
(c) Only a retired Chief Justice of India
(d) Only a retired Chief Justice of a High Court
88. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(a) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hastings
(b) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie
(c) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon
(d) Ilbert Bill : Ripon
89. Who was the last ruler of the Tughluq dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate?
(a) Firoz Shah Tughuq
(b) Ghiyas-ud-din Tughluq
Shah - II
(c) Nasir-ud-din Mahmud
(d) Nasrat Shah
90. The great Asian river Mekong does not run through
(a) China (b) Malaysia
(c) Combodia (d) Laos
91. Which one of the following was the largest IT software and services exporter in India during the year 2002-03?
(a) Birlasoft
(b) Infosys Technologies
(c) Tata Consultancy Services
(d) Wipro Technologies
92. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) The largest Buddhist monastery in India is in Assam
(b) The language Konyak is spoken in Nagaland
(c) The largest river island in the world is in Assam
(d) Sikkin is the least-populated State of the Indian Union
93. Consider the following statements:
1. The Oil Pool Account of Government of India was dismantled with effect from 1-4-2002.
2. Subsidies on PDS kerosene and domestic LPG are borne by Consolidated Fund of India.
3. An expert Committee headed by Dr. R. A. Mashelkar to formulate a national auto fuel policy recommended that
Bharat Stage-II Emission Norms should be applied throughout the country by 1 April, 2004.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
94. In the last one decade, which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?
(a) Chemicals other than fertilizers
(b) Services sector
(c) Food processing
(d) Telecommunication
95. Consider the following statements:
1. The Chinese pilgrim Fa-Hien attended the fourth Great Buddhist Council held by Kanishka.
2. The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen-Tsang met Harsha and found him to be antagonistic to Buddhism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. How did the dynasty of Nizam Shahis of Ahmadnagar come to an end?
(a) Ahmadnagar was annexed into Mughal empire and Husain Shah was consigned to life imprisonment
(b) Mughal troops destroyed Daulatabad fort and killed Nizam-ul Mulk of Ahmadnagar
(c) Fateh Khan usurped the throne from Nizam-ul Mulk
(d) Malik Ambar was defeated in a battle with Mughals in 1631 and the entire royal family was killed by the Mughal troops
97. With reference to ancient Jainism, which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Jainism was spread in South India under the leadership of Sthalabahu
(b) The Jainas who remained under the leadership of Bhadrabahu were called Shvetambaras after the Council held at Pataliputra
(c) Jainism enjoyed the patronage of the Kalinga king Kharavela in the first century BC
(d) In the initial stage of Jainism, the Jainas worshipped images unlike Buddhists
98. Which one of the following four Vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?
(a) Rig-veda (b) Yajur-veda
(c) Atharva-veda (d) Sama-veda
99. The Montagu-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of
(a) the Indian Councils Act, 1909
(b) the Government of India Act, 1919
(c) the Government of India Act, 1935
(d) the Indian Independence Act, 1947
100. During the Indian Freedom Struggle, who among the following proposed that Swaraj should be
defined as complete independence free from all foreign control?
(a) Mazharul Haque
(b) Maulana Hasrat Mohani
(c) Hakim Ajmal Khan
(d) Abul Kalam Azad
101. Which one of the following sequences indicates the correct chronological order?
(a) Shankaracharya-Ramanuja-Chaitanya
(b) Ramanuja-Shankaracharya-Chaitanya
(c) Ramanuja-Chaitanya-Shankaracharya
(d) Shankaracharya-Chaitanya-Ramanuja
102. Consider the following Princely States of the British rule in India:
1. Jhansi
2. Sambalpur
3. Satara
The correct chronological order in which they were annexed by the British is
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 1-3-2
(c) 3-2-1 (d) 3-1-2
103. The name of the famous persons of India who returned the Knighthood conferred on him by the
British Government as a token of protest against the atrocities in Punjab in 1919 was
(a) Tej Bahadur Sapru
(b) Ashutosh Mukherjee
(c) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(d) Syed Ahmed Khan
104. The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
(a) Lok Sabha alone
(b) either House of Parliament
(c) Joint Sitting of Parliament
(d) Rajya Sabha alone
105. With reference to the Constitution of India, which one of the following paris is not correctly matched?
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent List
(c) Post Office Savings : Union List
Bank
(d) Public Health : State List

106. Consider the following tasks:
1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections
2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all elections to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President
3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and individuals contesting the election
4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes
Which of the above are the functions of the Election Commission of India?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4
107. With reference to Indian Public Finance, consider the following statements:
1. Disbursements from Public Accounts of India are subject to the Vote of Parliament.
2. The Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Consolidated Fund, a Public Account and a Contingency Fund for each State.
3. Appropriations and disbursements under the Railway Budget are subject to the same form of parliamentary control as other appropriations and disbursements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
108. Consider the following statements:
1. Narasimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and siezed the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.
2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.
3. Vira Narashima was succeeded by his younger brother, Krishnadeva Raya.
4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by his half-brother, Achyuta Raya.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
109. Consider the following statements:
Some of the main features of the Government of India Act, 1935 were the
1. abolition of diarchy in the Governors’ provinces
2. power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own
3. abolition of the principle communal representation
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
110. Consider the following statements:
1. The First Session of the Indian National Congress was held in Calcutta
2. The Second Session of the Indian National Congress was held under the presidentship of Dadabhai Naoroji
3. Both Indian National Congress and Muslim League held their sessions at Lucknow in 1916 and concluded the Lucknow Pact.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
111. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru, M. A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India
(c) The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947
(d) The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1950
112. The Archaeological Survey of India is an attached office of the Department/Ministry of
(a) Culture
(b) Tourism
(c) Science and Technology
(d) Human Resource
Development
113. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest criminal court of the district is the Court of District and Session Judge.
2. The District Judges are appointed by the Governor in consultation with the High Courts.
3. A person to be eligible for appointment as a District Judge should be an advocate or a pleader of seven years’ standing or more, or an officer in judicial service of the Union or the State.
4. When the Sessions Judge awards death sentence, it must be confirmed by the high Court before it is carried out.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
114. Consider the following statements:
1. The Speaker of Lok Sabha has the power to adjourn the House sine die but, on prorogation, it is only the President who can summon the House.
2. Unless sooner dissolved or there is an extension of the term, there is an automatic dissolution of the Lok Sabha by efflux of time, at the end of the period of five years, even if no formal order of dissolution is issued by the President.
3. The Speaker of Lok Sabha continues in office even after the dissolution of the House and until immediately before the first meeting of the House’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
115. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Under the Targeted Public Distribution System, the families Below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg of food grains per month per family at subsidised price.
(b) Under Annapurna Scheme, indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible for National Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grains per person per month free of cost
(c) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per person per month at BPL rates
(d) Ministry of Human Resource Development gives financial support to Mid-day Meal Scheme for the benefit of class I to V students in Government or Government aided Schools
116. Consider the following statements:
1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an important symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.
2. Deficiency of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.
3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles.
4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes increased loss of Ca++ in urine
Which of the statement given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
117. The hormone insulin is a
(a) Glycolipid (b) Fatty acid
(c) Peptide (d) Sterol
118. Consider the following statements:
1. Toothless mammals such as pangolins are not found in India.
2. Gibbon is the only ape found in India.
Which of the statements given
above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
119. In which organ of the human body are the lymphocyte cells formed?
(a) Liver
(b) Long bone
(c) Pancreas
(d) Spleen
120. In which one of the following Union Territories, do the people of the Onge tribe live?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(c) Daman and Diu
(d) Lakshadweep
121. Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton 2. Groundnut
3. Maize 4. Mustard
Which of the above are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
122. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) In Lok Sabha, a no-confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is based
(b) In the case of a no-confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility have been laid down in the Rules
(c) A motion of no-confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of the leave being granted
(d) Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no-confidence
123. Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?
(a) It contains the scheme of the distribution of powers between the Union and the States
(b) It contains the languages listed in the Constitution
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas
(d) It allocates seats in the Council of States
124. Consider the following statements:
1. Hema Malini is the Chairperson of the Children’s Film Society, India
2. Yash Chopra is the Chairman of the Central Board of Film Certification of India.
3. Dilip Kumar, Raj Kapoor and Dev Anand have all been recipients of Dada Saheb Phalke Award.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
125. Famous Golf player Vijay Singh is from which one of the following countries?
(a) Fiji (b) Mauritius
(c) Malaysia (d) Kenya
126. Lativa does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?
(a) Russia (b) Estonia
(c) Lithuania (d) Poland
127. Consider the following statements:
1. The highest deciding body for planning in India is the Planning Commission of India
2. The Secretary of the Planning Commission of India is also the Secretary of National Development Council.
3. The Constitution includes economic and social planning in the Concurrent List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 only (d) 3 only
128. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (Location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Minerals) (Location)
A. Coal 1. Giridih
B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam
C. Manganese 3. Alwar
D. Lignite 4. Dharwar
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 4 3 2
(b) A B C D
2 3 4 1
(c) A B C D
1 3 4 2
(d) A B C D
2 4 3 1
129. Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?
(a) Agra-Mumbai
(b) Chennai-Thane
(c) Kolkata-Hajira
(d) Pune-Machilipatnam
130. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institutes of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?
1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai
2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali
3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology,Thiruvananthapuram
4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
131. Consider the following statements:
1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.
2. Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.
3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
132. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?
(a) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of Parliament before it can be enacted into law
(b) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act
(c) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates
of taxes which are already under operation
(d) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President
133. Match List-I (Sea) with List-II (Country) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Sea) (Country)
A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria
B. Red Sea 2. China
C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea
D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan
Codes:
(a) A B C D
1 4 2 3
(b) A B C D
2 3 1 4
(c) A B C D
1 3 2 4
(d) A B C D
2 4 1 3
134. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised
as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?
(a) Article 257 (b) Article 258
(c) Article 355 (d) Article 356
135. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
List-I List-II
(Period) (Wars)
1. AD 1767-69 : First Anglo-Maratha War
2. AD 1790-92 : Third Mysore war
3. AD 1824-26 : First Anglo Burmese War
4. AD 1845-46 : Second Sikh War
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3
136. Consider the following:
1. Mahadeo Hills
2. Sahyadri Parvat
3. Satpura Range
What is the correct sequence of the above from the north to the south?
(a) 1-2-3 (b) 2-1-3
(c) 1-3-2 (d) 2-3-1
137. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which one of the following cities of
Rajasthan?
(a) Bharatpur (b) Jaipur
(c) Jodhpur (d) Udaipur
138. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(Articles of the Consti- (Provision)
tution of India)
A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them
B. Article 15 2. The State shall not deny to any person equality before the law or the equal protection of laws withing the territory of India
C. Article 16 3. ‘Untouchability’ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden
D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office
under the State
Codes:
(a) A B C D
2 4 1 3
(b) A B C D
3 1 4 2
(c) A B C D
2 1 4 3
(d) A B C D
3 4 1 2
139. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Cirrus clouds are composed of ice crystals
(b) Cirrus clouds exhibit a flat base and have the appearance of rising domes
(c) Cumulus clouds are white and thin, and form delicate patches and give a fibrous and feathery appearance
(d) Cumulus clouds are classified as high clouds
140. Match List-I (National Park/Sanctuary) with List-II (State) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:
List-I List-II
(National Park/ (State)
Sanctuary)
A. Kanger Ghati 1. Chhattisgarh
National Park
B. Nagerhole 2. Haryana
National Park
C. Kugti Wildlife 3. Himachal
Sanctuary Pradesh
D. Sultanpur Bird 4. Karnataka
Sanctuary
Codes:
(a) A B C D
3 2 1 4
(b) A B C D
1 4 3 2
(c) A B C D
3 4 1 2
(d) A B C D
1 2 3 4
141. Which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Gulfs with narrow fronts and wider rears experience high tides
(b) Tidal currents take place when a gulf is connected with the open sea by a narrow channel
(c) Tidal bore occurs when a tide enters the narrow and shallow estuary of a river
(d) The tidal nature of the mouth of the river Hooggly is of crucial importance to Kolkata as port
142. Consider the following statements:
1. The Islamic Calendar is twelve days shorter than the Gregorian Calender
2. The Islamic Calendar began in AD 632.
3. The Gregorian Calendar is a solar calendar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Directions:
The following 8 (eight) items consist of two Statements; one lablelled as the ‘Assertion(A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are
to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the corrrect explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
143. Assertion (A) : Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of Mangalore.
Reason (R) : Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from south-west and north-east monsoons.
144. Assertion (A) : The Central Rural Sanitation Programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India.
Reason (R) : Rural sanitation is a subject in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India
145. Assertion (A) : West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.
Reason (R) : These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.
146. Assertion (A) : The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator.
Reason (R) : High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the Equator.
147. Assertion (A) : In our houses, the current in AC electricity line changes direction 60 times per second.
Reason (R) : The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.
148. Assertion (A) : Fatty acids should be a part of the balanced human diet.
Reason (R) : The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.
149. Assertion (A): India does not export natural rubber
Reason (R) : About 97% of India’s demands for natural rubber is met from domestic production.
150. Assertion (A) : For the first time, India had no trade deficit in the year 2002-03.
Reason (R) : For the first time, India’s exports crossed worth $50 billion in the year 2002-03

.Answers 76. b 77. b 78. c
79. a 80. b 81. c
82. d 83. a 84. b
85. d 86. a 87. c
88. c 89. c 90. b
91. c 92. a 93. a
94. d 95. d 96. a
97. c 98. c 99. b
100. b 101. a 102. c
103. c 104. d 105. b
106. a 107. b 108. d
109. b 110. c 111. a
112. a 113. d 114. d
115. a 116. d 117. c
118. c 119. b 120. a
121. b 122. a 123. d
124. d 125. a 126. d
127. b 128. c 129. c
130. a 131. d 132. a
133. c 134. a 135. d
136. c 137. b 138. c
139. a 140. b 141. c
142. d 143. d 144. c
145. a 146. d 147. d
148. c 149. b 150. d
Dear brothers there is nothing impossible for determined person

Start your direction towards civil services and win the race

Thank you

Keep it up

Yours truly,

Dr Rambilas Singh Gurjar

[Dr rambilas singh Gurjar]

Tips to Improve spoken English

Today every competition requires command on good English language, is it not so heavy burden, if timely measures are taken to improve it. Here we will discuss some sort of simple measures, which may be easily adopted by any aspirants


(aaj hamen har comptetion ke liye dharapravah English ki jaroorat padti hai , agar ham samay rahate seekhne ki koshish Karen to asani se seekh sakte hai)





The learning of spoken English is quite different art, as you must have seen at tourist places, the taxi drivers’ rickshaw pullers and tourist guides speaks the language so fluently that you may be confused about their education status. In spite of their less educated status, these tourist guides, taxi drivers, and rickshaw pullers at tourist places, are able to communicate fluently with foreigners

(English seekhana aur padhana dono alag art hain, tourist places par taxi driver rickshaw chalane wale aur guides ko dekho kam education hone par bhi videshi tourists se dharapravah English main baat karate hain,inki is yogyata par kisi ko bhi confusion ho sakata hai , kisi ko aisa lag sakata hai ki itni achchhi English bolne ke liye sayad inhone kafi study ki hogi)
.




How it is possible? This is possible only by four factors of learning named, demand desire decision to perform the act, devotion in learning,

( yeh kaise sanbhav hua? Iske liye jaroorat hona,seekhne ki ikshasakti and seekhne ka faisala kar lena,tatha faisala lekar us disha main poora prayas karma jaroori hai)





1.Demand and desire--- The answer of above question lie in the demand of above peoples for their livelihood, although above peoples are less educated but when they feel the demand of the language to communicate with foreign tourists which are capable of paying much more money than the local tourists, they starts the thinking to learn it

.(English seekhne ki jaroorat padane par, taxi drivers ki iksha “desire” jagati hai, ki agar main bhi English seekh jaoon to, thodi mehnat karne par videshi tourists se adhik rupye kama sakata hoon, kyonki videshi tourists Indian tourists se adhik paisa dete hain)
They starts to listen the communication carefully.
(vah vartalap ko dhan se sunna suru kar det hain)





Listening carefully the communications, between of other English speaking taxi drivers, and foreign tourists regularly, they make them able to understand and then starts communications fluently. They practice it regularly and by practice they perform amazing English language command.

(regularily dhyan se sunkar samajh kar kuchh hi dino main vah dharapravah vartalaap karne lagate hain is tarah ka English par command ashcharyajanak hai)





The humans are great mimickers every language as mother tongue is learnt regularly from childhood, through parants and family, because we are exposed to that language. There are no extra efforts to be taken to learn it.

( insaan bachpan se hi achchha nakalchi hai har language bale ko apni matrabhasa seekhne ke liye school nahin jana padata, parants aur parivar dwara , kuch hi saalon hum nakal dwara matrubhasha seekh jate hain)

Above example proves that we can learn the language if we expose us to conversation in the form of literature, voice listening, and practicing conversations, and the following measures may useful.

(Upper bale examples se clear hai ki literature padh kar TV sunkar tatha baatcheet karana tatha sunana humare liye English seekhne ke liye mahatwapuran hai)





You need to expose yourself to the English language environment, as much as possible, in the form of reading, listening and conversation
1. Literature exposure >for grammer, meaning and understanding.
By reading books and newspapers, magazines, advertisements, packaging, anything you can find in that language.
An English language novel ,which are easily available on book stall. For economy you can purchase second hand Nobels from raddywala (pheriwala raddiwal the person who sells or purchase, refused, utilized books or news papers) and read it out loud, several times. Most beneficial are the nobles that are written as direct sentences (like drama theme) this will help you pick up the grammar and rhythm of speech patterns. In fact, practice reading everything you read out loud and repeat the sentence. So you can use it fluently when you need the sentence.

(grammer tatha meaning seekhane ke liye English sahitya padhane par dhyan do ,drama ekanki jo bhi English main mil jaye use jaroor padho ,aur samjho,drama ki books ke sentences ko baar baar dohara kar padho aur yaad karo jisase jaroorat padane par yah poore sentence kaam aa saken)





2. Listening to spoken English
Whenever you have time, you should relax by watching T.V.
Starting from Indian T.V. channel news which are easy to understood initially rather then rather than English spoken by foreigners.
Then move to foreign channels try to Start watching animated English language cartoon picture, English language movies i.e. action, comedy, romance, science fiction horror movies, ghost detective, martial arts, romantic, war movies etc what ever your choice,
May be you ought to listen English news or music on radio channels also. You will find it a huge benefit to listen to the language programmes of your choice on tape, CD player, and DVD player or on computer, which is useful because the sentences which are difficult to understood, may be repeated to understand the spoken language .
.

(TV,Radio par pasandida programme English main dekhen sunen, pahale Indian spoken language samajhane ki koshish Karen kyonki yah videshi language ki vajay jyada aasani se samajh main aati hai . CD player,DVD player aur computer par CD play karne tatha baar baar us CD ko repeat kar sunane se hamen spoken english samajhane main adhik madad mil sakati hai ,computer chat jo ki voice tatha written dono ki ja sakati hain computer par kar sakate hain .internet par hajaron web site hain jo hamen spoken English sikhane main madad kar sakti hain)







3 Practice conversations, with others ,as much as possible. It really is a case of immersing yourself until much of it becomes automatic. Meaningful interaction will speed progress. Activities like drama and sports create opportunities for students to interact with fellow students in meaningful ways. Tutoring sessions can take place anywhere-in a field, in the gym, in a park. Push back from your desks and move around. Think of learning a new language as a process. Many English language learners may seem fluent socially, but they may experience more confusion when tackling complicated academic tasks. Use short, complete sentences in a normal tone of voice. Use actions and illustrations to reinforce oral statements. Visual aids, prompts, and facial expressions help to convey meaning. Try to talk to native speakers or to whom those fluent in English, as well as practicing with other learners. Speak simply and clearly





You should actively participate in a conversation where ever you have got the chance, you may make friends for conversation on internet chat also on sites like

>http://www.englishbaby.com
With Similar hobbies you can make friends for conversation purpose who know the language and may correct your mistakes and let them see that you are friendly. Examine yourself to find out what you did wrong, or talk more with them to help them understand you better.

(spoken English sudharane ke liye jahan bhi English language bolane ka mauka mile jaroor koshish Karen , conversation groups, jo ki seekhane ki iksha rakhane walon dwara banaya ja sakta hai, kafi madadgar sabit hoga kyonki isase apko jhijhak bhi nahin lagegi aur ek duje ki mistakes bhi dur ki ja sakegi bana lena chahiye,conversation internet chat (voice) bhi kafi madad kar sakati hai, drama play karana,tutorials ki madad lena bhi achchha option hai)


By Dr Ram Bilas Singh Gurjar

email >[e-mail]

[Dr rambilas singh Gurjar]

Techniques to improve memory (Yaddast Badhane ki tarikeeben)
Ten TIPS (das tareeke)

1. First realize and become aware of how important it is to develop the skill of concentration and memory.

( first yah samajh len ki Yaad badhai jaa sakati hai aur iske liye is tarkib ko aadat men daalen)

2. Do not always trust your memory. Write your ideas, goals and important information down on paper. Anything you need to get accomplished, create a To Do list.

(ek bar men bina concentration ke yaad nahin rahata ,to ideas ya apane uddeshya ko kaajag par likh len)

3. Use the formula…Think It, Ink It, Link It and Sink It
.
(Formula > sochen>likhen>purani yaaddast se jod kar yaad Karen>Yaddast men utaar len)

4. Create an affirmation to build memory and concentration. Many people say “I can never remember names” or “I have such a bad memory.” These will only reinforce your belief in having a bad memory. Instead, create a positive affirmation and say “I have an amazing memory and I remember names with ease.” Once you “act as if” you have great concentration and memory, you will have great concentration and memory

.( sadaiv positive sochen,sakaratmak soch se aur viswash se yaddast badhati chali jaati hai,nakaratmak soch se yaddast kamjor padati jaati hai)

5. The use of your imagination is a key factor in remembering any names, places or things. When remembering, amplify whatever it is you want to remember. Make it bigger, bolder and louder so it impresses upon your memory

(Kalpana shkti se kisi bhi vastu ko yaad karane men madad milti hai,kalpana kariye ki apko anil ambani ko yaad rakhana hain to anil ambani ko previous memory dheerubhai ambani ka elder son hai se jod kar yaad kariye ,aur dunia ka sabase bada amir hai ,yaad karane mai kaffi madad milegi,agar iske saath yah bhi imagine kar liya jaye ki yah question examination men anew ala hai aap ko yad karane main aur sahayata milegi).

6. Clean up any clutter or messes in your life. Any unresolved business will turn your attention away from what it is you need to remember.repeat it repeatedly

(yaad karate vaqt ghar ya dusari jagah ki yaaddast ko bhula dijiye concentration se yaad rakana aasan ho jaata hai baar baar duharaaven,

long term memory ke liye repeat karne ka tarika 24hrs men ,3rd day, 7th day, 15th day ,30th day ,,and 3 month par repeat Karen reverse order men examination se pahale yaad Karen, jaise examination se 3months before then 1 month,1 week ,3 day ,24hr and just before the paper)

7. Set goals for yourself. Once you set a goal, your mind will automatically accept it into the subconscious and recalling important information will become easier.
( apna goal ya target nishchit kar dijiye isase apko apne target se sambandhit baten aasani se yaad hoti chali jayengi subconscious memory men apane regular work ki baten asani se yaad hoti chali jaati hain aur pata bhi nahin chalta
example ke liye agar aapko IAS ka examination clear karana hai, to usase sambandhit samagri aapka dimaag apane aap collect karate chala jayega)

8. Listen to others…Look Intent, Stop Talking, Embrace Naturally. This way, you will absorb what others are saying and it will be easier to recall
.(dusaron ki baton ko dhyan se sunen ,interest paida Karen aur baton main apani baaten band kar maja len turant yaad hota chala jayega interesting film dekkate samay ham dhyan se diologue sunate hain interesting bhi lagate hain to hamen turant yaad ho jate hain ,boaring movie par dhyan nahin dene par film samajh men hi nahin aati, Note karen concentration aur interest dono ek saath hon phir repeat kar liya jaye to remember karana kafi aasan ho jayega)

9. When remembering, take a deep breath in, exhale and relax. This will allow you to release any tension and resistance, thus enabling you to concentrate without trying.(Jab yaad kar rahe hon to Gahari swash len chhoden,aur relax hokar baithen isase concentration men madad milegi)

10. Read books and study how your memory works. Suggested books are Dynamic memory methods by bishwaroop roy chowdhury in hindi , in fusion books,2.Memory techniquesby neeraja roy chowduary fusion books in englishlanguage,3.Dynamic memory power by Arun sagar in hindi raja pocket books4.Memory mind and body by bishwaroop roy chowdhury in english



The well known learning curve shows that in five minutes, much of the information we have taken in is lost. After an hour - two thirds of it is lost. And after a day has passed - 90 % of it is lost. This is the curve of forgetting. What we've found is that you can reverse that curve. And there are various techniques to do it.
And now you can reverse the learning curve. This is the key point here. You can reverse the learning curve by RECALL. The number of times you recall something helps move that piece of information from your short term memory to your long term memory.
To point out a specific technique that works the best:
Step number 1 - take in formation.
Step number 2 - about five minutes later, undisturbed, go over the main points of what you are trying to remember. That should only take you a minute or two.
Step number 3 - an hour later, do the same thing.
Step number 4 - three hours later, do the same thing. Just go back over the information a minute or two.
Step number 5 - six hours later, do the same thing. Then that night before you go to sleep, review the material one last time.
Then step number 6 - repeat that three times a day for the second and third days. Now you have that information for the long term.

by rambilassingh